WAS JESUS CHRIST HETEROSEXUAL?

The average Christian is accustomed to perceiving Jesus Christ of the Gospels as a heterosexual who practiced celibacy. This may be due to the fact that very little (if nothing at all) is directly quoted in the Gospels about his sexual orientation. But not much is said about his childhood. Does that mean he didn’t have one? Or does it mean he was basically no different than anyone else? Is it safe to say, some things can be assumed because of what is not said? Can we assume Jesus had a love life or sexual preference regardless to whether or not the authors of the Gospels focused on it? On the other hand, did they use any language that suggested Jesus had his picks and chooses?

THE SYNOPTIC GOSPELS PLUS ONE
Unbeknownst to most Christians, the Gospels were written by four different authors who did not witness the events they wrote about Jesus Christ. As a matter of fact, we have no idea who wrote any of them! We often assume Matthew was the author of the Gospel According to Saint Matthew; probably, because the “According to” is often left out when referring to the book. Like the other three, this work was written by a third-party who suggests; he took dictation as the namesake spoke. Ergo, this is what I wrote ACCORDING TO what Saint Matthew said. Which makes sense because the namesake was not a writer, he was a fisherman. And issues like "heterosexual" and "celibacy" are no where near addressed. It is also questionable whether the namesake spoke any Greek. However, according to the science; Matthew is dated as having been written anywhere between 60 and 115 years after the recorded events took place.

Have you ever heard the kid’s song: One of these things is not like the others! One of these things just doesn’t belong! Can you guess which thing is not like the others; before I finish my song? Is there a Christian version about Jesus Christ? If not, there should be; Bible Scholars have been singing a similar tune to the Gospels. Their conclusion; Matthew, Mark and Luke share similarities; John is completely different. The similar books are called the Synoptic Gospels. In 1774, a more thorough parallel study was published by Johann Jakob Griesbach. In a quest to solve the Synoptic Problem (i.e. the identical wording used in works written by three completely different authors); Johann Griesbach suggested – Matthew was an original work; Luke is based on about 65% of Matthew; and 76% of Mark is based on both Matthew and Luke. However, the Synoptics suggest nothing about sexuality but John practically challenges the heterosexual assumptions about celibacy.

THE GOSPEL ACCORDING TO JOHN
The Gospel According to John stands alone! It in no way resembles the other three. And it is the only book that gives us a hint of Jesus’ sexual orientation. It is documented that King James I of England (namesake of the KJV Bible), well-versed in the Scriptures, believed Jesus Christ was not a heterosexual who practiced celibacy. This also challenged the Christian view of the Church. But, he was the King! There is also a very good possibility that King James I had access to a lot more information than the average Joe. King James I often justified his own sexual attraction to the much younger George Villiers (the Earl of Buckingham) by referring to Jesus and John. But what exactly did he mean? All we can do is explore the little information we have. Although, I’m still an advocate of believing King James had more information to base his conclusion on.

One common mistake Christians of today make when reading any Gospel is assuming homosexuals in biblical times behaved in the exact same way as homosexuals in modern times. In the days of Jesus Christ stretching back to those of Moses, men owned everything … including women! Wealth was not exclusive to heterosexuals! A homosexual man could have great wealth; owning property and people like Abraham did. In addition, they had wives and children of their own! Any one with wealth would want to produce an heir. Hence, in society all men, regardless of sexual orientation, did the same things - owned property and had families! All celibacy aside, there was no such thing as an exclusive homosexual couple. The few biblical cases that obviously involve homosexuality are often dismissed as bi-sexuality - based on our modern definition. Once again, this is the result of forcing modern society onto biblical society.

John is called five-times, “the disciple whom Jesus loved.” Heterosexual Bible Scholars argue Jesus Christ loved all his disciples … he practiced celibacy. But none of the other eleven were ever once referred to as a disciple whom Jesus loved. It is constantly pointed out that John was a special love interest. For example, John 13:23 and 25 states:

Now there was leaning on Jesus' bosom one of his disciples, whom Jesus loved … He then lying on Jesus' breast saith unto him, Lord, who is it?

In any century, when one person (Christian or non) puts their head in another person’s lap or against their breast; intimacy is going on! Jesus Christ is not excluded! However, one might argue that was part of the custom back then. I might argue, what makes you think that? Why weren’t the other disciples displaying the same mannerism? Why weren’t the disciples taking turns invading Jesus’ personal space? You cannot find that in any Gospel!

THE AGAPE CONSPIRACY
The Christian argument says: in verse 23, the English word “loved” replaced the Greek word “agape” meaning: spiritual love; thereby, supporting that celibacy position, as well. Speaking as a heterosexual male, over the years I have had spiritual love for dozens of other males. But I never once had the urge to touch any of them in an intimate way … outside of a withdrawn-ish hug! And according to the Gospel of Jesus Christ, I greeted many a female with a questionable holy kiss or hug. But that was me. The way I see it, actions always speak louder than words! The Greek word may be “agape” but the actions involved are “eros (erotic love).” And of course there is heavy speculation among Bible Scholars that “eros” was the original word used. But if you have a bunch of homophobic individuals doing all the translating … what are the chances?

In ancient Greek culture, to whom the Gospel of Jesus Christ was originally intended; pederasty (an intimate relationship between an older [typically heterosexual] man and a much younger [typically effeminate] man or boy) was a common practice in the political arena (i.e. the Caesars, Governors, Senators, Congressmen, Aldermen and Mayors). In the case of Jesus and John; John was the younger man. And any Greek at the time reading the original Greek Scriptures would have instantly drawn that conclusion. But do not assume the average Greek reader was homophobic. They were not! You must also remember, at the time Christians were killed for sport to entertain the politicians! A detail many of us today seem to forget. Now, what is the best way to get all those people in-charge of killing Christians to consider joining them, instead? Convince them (or show them) that the Son of God was no different than they were! And a heterosexual who practiced celibacy would not have done the trick!

The Naked Young Man [Vicky Adler] The Body of Christ [Amanda Heart]

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BISCUITHANDS, THE ANIMATED MUSICAL
On a planet similar to our own, two classes of people co-exist; the ruling Digit-Fingers and the oppressed, BiscuitHands. There was no hope until the fulfillment of a prophesied birth. One man would arise and challenge injustice with the message of love and peace as his weapons of choice.

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